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MGT 434 FINAL EXAM 2016

1. An employment relationship where there is no contractual obligation to remain in the relationship either party may terminate the relationship at any time is:

Contractor;

De Facto Employment;

At-Will Employment;

None of the Above.

2. A test used to determine employee status which considers the right or ability to control the work:

The Economic Factors Analysis

The FLSA test

The common law agency test

The OSHA test

3. Which of the following employees are covered by Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964:

Employees of employers not engaged in interstate commerce

Non-US citizens employed outside the United States

Employees of employers who have 15 or more employees

Employees of religious institutions.

4. Different types of laws include:

Statutory Laws;

Common Law;

Administrative Law;

All of the Above.

5. If an employee is given no reasonable alternative but to terminate the employment relationship, it’s referred to as a:

De Facto Discharge;

Constructive Discharge;

Voluntary Termination;

None of the above.

6. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 added _________ to Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964:

Judicial Review

EEOC

Anti retaliation provisions

Jury trials

7. __________discrimination is not protected under Title VII:

Race

Religion

Age

Gender

8. If a case is filed with the Equal Opportunity Employment Commission (EEOC), the parties may be involved in a:

Mediation;

Conciliation;

Investigation;

All of the above.

9. The imposition of liability on one party for the wrongs of another:

Vicarious Liability;

Ratification;

Implied Covenant of Good Faith and Fair Dealing;

None of the above.

10. Which of the following is a judicial requirement for an affirmative action plan?

It is inflexible and immediate in its approach.

It is used to address a conspicuous imbalance in traditionally segregated job categories

It is a permanent plan.

It is used to maintain status quo

11. Under the Privacy Act of 1974

An employee can seek both civil and criminal remedies for violations of the act by private sector employers

An employee can seek both civil and criminal remedies for violation of the act by private sector employers and government sector employer

An employee can seek both civil and criminal remedies for violations of the act by government sector employers

An employee is barred from criminal remedies unless he can demonstrate interference with the orderly functioning of the government

12. One way to prove a Title VII case of discrimination is:

To show an employment practice while neutral on its face has a disparate impact on a protected class;

To show an employment practice is negligent;

To show an employment practice is illegal;

None of the above

13. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 makes it unlawful to discriminate on the basis of an employee’s:

Race;

Color;

Sex;

All of the above

14. Which of the following laws relates to labor unions?

National Labor Relations Law

Taft-Hartley Act

Landrum-Griffin Act

All of the above

15. A variety of procedures for the resolution of disputes which are alternative to court adjudication are called:

full jury trial;

alternative mediation procedure;

alternative dispute resolution;

alternative conciliation procedure.

16. The Fair Labor Standards Act provides rules that apply to:

wrongful discharge;

discrimination;

overtime law;

none of the above.

17. Title VII applies to:

employers;

union;

joint labor and management committees;

all of the above.

18. Which of the following is a defense to a claim of age discrimination?

Age is a BFOQ;

The claimant is 41 years old;

Younger employees have traditionally performed better in the position

The employer is not a governmental agency.

19. This law requires an employer to provide a safe workplace

FMLA;

FLSA;

ERISA;

OSHA

20. Title VII prohibits discrimination on the basis of affinity orientation:

True

False

21. Under the Americans with Disability Act (ADA), employers are required to provide

employees with all requested accommodations.

True;

False

22. A Catholic Church would not be found liable in a Title VII action if the Church only hired teachers for Sunday school who practiced Catholicism?

True;

False

23. Affirmative action requires that an employer establish and implement a quota system?

True;

False

24. A Bona Fide Occupational Qualification (BFOQ) would be a legitimate defense to a discrimination claim based on an employee’s race?

True;

False

25. If an employer acts reasonably to accommodate a religious conflict, then it has not violated Title VII.

True;

False

26. In a disparate treatment case, the employer would be liable of intentionally discriminating against the employee.

True;

False

27. For an eligibility test to be legally validated as an effective gauge of performance, an employer must show that the test is job-related and consistent with business necessity.

True

False

28. An independent contractor can sue under Title VII:

True;

False

29. If an employee sues under Title VII, they first need to file a complaint in Federal Court.

True;

False

30. In a disparate impact case, an employer can raise the defense that the challenged policy is a business necessity.

True;

False

Newer Question Summary – Unit 3 Test Quiz Note: It is recommended that you save your response as you complete each question.________________________________________ Question 1 (1 point) ABC and XYZ, two organizations in the same industry, have come together to pursue areas of mutual interest. This refers to a(n): Question 1 options: a) unethical venture. b) acquisition. c) corporate takeover. d) strategic alliance. Save Question 2 (1 point) Your manager is considering options between a matrix structure and a team structure. Based on what you have learned in this class, you can tell her that the major difference between a matrix structure and a team structure is that a team structure: Question 2 options: a) has project management. b) is always temporary. c) has no project management. d) has no functional management. Save Question 3 (1 point) In creating an empowering climate, a manager should avoid: Question 3 options: a) allowing employees to make decisions themselves. b) closely supervising and regulating the work process. c) giving workers a chance to take the initiative in solving problems. d) taking suggestions and ideas from subordinates. Save Question 4 (1 point) Organizations that are most likely to have centralized management are: Question 4 options: a) Matrix organizations. b) Organic organizations. c) Empowered organizations. d) Mechanistic organizations. Save Question 5 (1 point) Your roommate wants to learn about organizational chart. You can tell her that these chart can tell you all of these about an organization EXCEPT their Question 5 options: a) control mechanisms. b) major subunits. c) division of work. d) span of control. Save Question 6 (1 point) Who is responsible for a cross-functional team member’s performance appraisal in a matrix structure? Question 6 options: a) The function manager b) Both the functional and project manager c) The project manager d) The general manager Save Question 7 (1 point) Informally defined organizations made up of unofficial employee working relationships are often referred to as __________ organizations. Question 7 options: a) vertical b) formal c) strategic d) shadow Save Question 8 (1 point) Which of these represent a valued advantage of a network structure? Question 8 options: a) Simplicity of operating the structures b) Control over each piece of the system c) Lower costs and flexibility d) An easy switch to this structure from any other type Save Question 9 (1 point) Matrix structures offer all of the following advantages EXCEPT Question 9 options: a) they are less costly than traditional structures. b) improved communication across functions. c) problem-solving at the team-level. d) a clear accountability for projects. Save Question 10 (1 point) The teams that make up the matrix structure are called __________ teams. Question 10 options: a) sales b) vertical c) matrix d) cross-functional Save Question 11 (1 point) The rational persuasion strategy is most closely linked to the __________ power base. Question 11 options: a) legitimate b) reward c) expert d) coercive Save Question 12 (1 point) At ABC Manufacturing, the process of turning ideas into products/methods that can increase profits would be called which of these? Question 12 options: a) Business model innovation b) Transformational change c) Virtual processing d) Organizational development Save Question 13 (1 point) According to Lewin, the correct order in the steps of change is: Question 13 options: a) freezing, refreezing, and changing. b) unfreezing, changing, and refreezing. c) changing, unfreezing, and refreezing. d) refreezing, changing, and unfreezing. Save Question 14 (1 point) Strong organizational cultures contribute to performance in all of the following ways EXCEPT: Question 14 options: a) they are high-performance oriented. b) they discourage dysfunctional work behaviors and encourage positive ones. c) they focus on getting the job done no matter how. d) they provide a clear vision. Save Question 15 (1 point) A(n) __________ strategy pursues change through formal authority and the use of rewards or punishments. Question 15 options: a) shared power b) irrational c) force-coercion d) rational persuasion Save Question 16 (1 point) Vodafone eliminated over 13,500 flights by replacing traveling with videoconferencing. By doing this Vodafone cut about 5,000 tons of carbon emissions. This example is considered what type of innovation? Question 16 options: a) Model innovation b) Technology innovation c) Green innovation d) Product innovation Save Question 17 (1 point) All of the following are true of major transformational change efforts EXCEPT: Question 17 options: a) they involve radical changes. b) overall, they are generally successful. c) such efforts are intense and highly stressful. d) they result in redirection of the organization. Save Question 18 (1 point) Many West coast companies do not have private offices or parking spaces for their senior managers. This is an example of an organization’s __________. Question 18 options: a) performance appraisal b) corporate policy c) employee training d) observable culture Save Question 19 (1 point) At Callaway Golf, which of the following would NOT be a part of the observable culture? Question 19 options: a) The layout of the offices b) The organizational beliefs c) The way people dress d) The lack of executive parking spaces Save Question 20 (1 point) __________ innovation recognizes the potential for valuable innovations to be launched from lower organizational levels and diverse locations, including emerging markets. Question 20 options: a) Virtual b) Commercializing c) Forward d) Reverse Save Question 21 (1 point) __________ programs allow choice to personalize benefits within a set dollar allowance. Question 21 options: a) Employee assistance b) Collective bargaining c) Family friendly d) Flexible benefits Save Question 22 (1 point) During selection, the process that attempts to reveal both the good and bad points of the job is called: Question 22 options: a) recruitment. b) an in-depth interview. c) a realistic job preview. d) orientation. Save Question 23 (1 point) In designing an employment test, ensuring that the results are an accurate predictor of future job performance means that the test instrument is __________. Question 23 options: a) socialized b) valid c) realistic d) reliable Save Question 24 (1 point) All of the following categories are protected by Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act (CRA) EXCEPT: Question 24 options: a) Age b) Race c) Color d) Religion Save Question 25 (1 point) A performance appraisal method that uses a log of the employee’s effective and ineffective job behaviors is called a__________. Question 25 options: a) graphic rating scale b) behaviorally anchored rating scale c) forced distribution method d) critical-incident technique Save Question 26 (1 point) Which of these is called a process of managing how an employee grows and progresses in responsibility from one point to another? Question 26 options: a) Career planning b) Career development c) Multiperson comparison d) Employee management Save Question 27 (1 point) Assigning an early career employee as a protégé to a more senior employee for the purpose of professional advice and career guidance is called __________. Question 27 options: a) mentoring b) assessing c) coaching d) socialization Save Question 28 (1 point) Job discrimination, denial based on non-performance related issues, occurs when an organization denies someone all of the following EXCEPT: Question 28 options: a) Vacation days b) A job assignment. c) Employment. d) An advancement opportunity. Save Question 29 (1 point) All of the following would be legitimate reasons for not hiring someone EXCEPT: Question 29 options: a) a special pilot’s license to fly for major airlines. b) passing a criminal background check to be an elementary school teacher. c) a minimum weight requirement to serve as a restaurant chef. d) a medical license to be a doctor. Save Question 30 (1 point) Which of the following is NOT good advice in preparing for a telephone interview? Question 30 options: a) Study the organization ahead and match your strengths to it b) Plan to take the call in a quiet, private location c) Don’t worry about how you are dressed d) Practice your voice tone and modulation to set a good first impression Save Question 31 (1 point) The law of ____________ reinforcement delivers the reward only when desired behavior occurs. Question 31 options: a) positive b) contingent c) immediate d) negative Save Question 32 (1 point) To have _______ people must believe in their abilities and believe that if they try hard to do something they can perform it well. Question 32 options: a) high expectancies b) high valences c) positive valences d) high instrumentalities Save Question 33 (1 point) In Vroom’s Expectancy Theory, __________ is a person’s belief that various outcomes will occur as a result of task performance. Question 33 options: a) expectancy b) valence c) achievement d) instrumentality Save Question 34 (1 point) People with a high need to power tend to: Question 34 options: a) behave in ways that have a clear impact on other people and events. b) prefer jobs offering companionship. c) do not enjoy being in control. d) enjoy satisfying interpersonal relationships. Save Question 35 (1 point) In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, __________ states that people try to satisfy lower level needs first, then move on to the next higher level. Question 35 options: a) existence b) frustration-regression c) progression d) deficit Save Question 36 (1 point) To have _____________ people must perceive that their performance accomplishments will be followed by desired work outcomes. Question 36 options: a) high instrumentalities b) positive valences c) low instrumentalities d) low valences Save Question 37 (1 point) According to Skinner, __________ discourages a behavior by making an unpleasant consequence contingent on its occurrence. Question 37 options: a) punishment b) extinction c) positive reinforcement d) negative reinforcement Save Question 38 (1 point) Herzberg believed that motivation and higher performance could be achieved by improving the content of a job. He called this job __________. Question 38 options: a) hunting b) design c) enrichment d) manipulation Save Question 39 (1 point) According to Herzberg, a __________ is found in job content such as a sense of achievement, recognition, responsibility, advancement, or personal growth. Question 39 options: a) desire b) need c) hygiene factor d) satisfier factor Save Question 40 (1 point) _______________ decreases the frequency of or eliminates an undesirable behavior by making the removal of a pleasant consequence. Question 40 options: a) Punishment b) Reinforcement c) Extinction d) Conditioning
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Older Question 1 As entry-mode strategies, direct and indirect exporting have Answer High levels of control and low levels of risk. Similar levels of risk and control as FDI. Low levels of risk and control. Are among the most risky. 4 points Question 2 When a firm from another country has an equity (or ownership) position in a separate company, it is engaging in Answer An international cooperative alliance. A turnkey operation. A contract manufacturer. FDI. 4 points Question 3 A company that treats and fills overseas orders like domestic orders is an example of a Answer Indirect exporter. Export management company. Aggressive exporter. Passive exporter. 4 points Question 4 Which strategy attempts to balance advantages from three other multinational strategies? Answer Regional Multidomestic Transnational International 4 points Question 5 Common customer needs, global sources of raw material, and favorable trade policies all lead to Answer An increased focus on local markets. More use of the multidomestic strategy. More use of the local solution to the global-local dilemma. A greater likelihood that companies select global strategies. 4 points Question 6 Selling global products and using similar marketing techniques worldwide is an example of a Answer Transnational strategy. International strategy. Multidomestic strategy. Regional strategy. 4 points Question 7 The type of vertical control mechanism most often associated with a profit center is Answer Bureaucratic. Output. Cultural. Decision making. 4 points Question 8 Which of the following is NOT one of the questions asked when designing an organization? Answer How should work be divided among the organization’s subunits? How should the work be coordinated among the various subunits? How should the work of the various subunits be controlled? How many subunits should the multinational have? Question 9 A __________ helps link the organization horizontally. Answer Control system Coordination system Cultural system Centralized operations 4 points Question 10 The type of control system favored by the transnational is Answer Bureaucratic. Output. Cultural. Decision making. 4 points Question 11 The worldwide product structure is usually considered best to implement a/an _____ strategy. Answer Multidomestic or regional Transnational International Indirect exporting 4 points Question 12 The least efficient of the following structural options is Answer Product structure. Functional structure. Vertical structure. Graphic structure. 4 points Question 13 Understanding a new market and developing a new technology may be used as performance criteria for which of the following? Answer Organizational learning Management processes Competitive advantage Commitment 4 points Question 14 Strategic alliance partners prefer a dominant management structure Answer If partners have similar technologies or know-how and they contribute this knowledge equally to the alliance. If partners have different technologies or know-how and they contribute this knowledge equally to the alliance. If partners have different technologies or know-how and they contribute this knowledge differently to the alliance. If the alliance has more strategic importance to one partner. 4 points Question 15 Which of the following type of strategic alliances allows the multinational to combine manufacturing or assembly activities to achieve a profitable volume of activity? Answer Operations alliances Output alliances Upstream-downstream alliances Marketing alliances 4 points Question 16 Strategic complementarity in a strategic alliance means that Answer Both sides must have similar strategic objectives for the strategic alliance to succeed. Objectives can be different if they are not in conflict. Cultural differences must be dealt with first. Parent companies must leave the strategic alliance management to develop their own strategic goals. 4 points Question 17 An agreement not legally binding between companies to cooperate on any value-chain activity is a (an) Answer Formal international cooperative alliance. International joint venture. Informal international joint venture. International cooperative alliance. 4 points Question 18 __________ means that companies rely on each other to contribute to the relationship. Answer Shared management Balanced management The norm of reciprocity Mutual dependency 4 points Question 19 Which of the following describes the situation where companies stay in a strategic alliance despite strong evidence that the alliance won’t work? Answer Calculative commitment Credibility commitment Attitudinal commitment Escalation of commitment 4 points Question 20 According to the text, the degree of difficulty in conducting global e-commerce businesses is primarily dependent on Answer The financial requirements. The availability of management talent. The infrastructure requirements. The telecommunications infrastructure requirements. 4 points Question 21 According to the text, where is the greatest potential for e-commerce businesses? Answer North America The European Union South America Asia 4 points Question 22 Having systems in place to ensure that collected information is accurate and reliable represents which form of information security? Answer Confidentiality Availability Integrity Authentication 4 points Question 23 Southeast Asian countries represent opportunities for e-commerce growth due to Answer Spanish language websites. Membership in ASEAN. Global demand. Internet economy. 4 points Question 24 According to the text, which of the following is NOT one of the management challenges companies will face as they develop their e-commerce businesses? Answer Attracting, retaining, and developing employees in the e-commerce unit Deciding which e-commerce functions to outsource Finding funds to develop the e-commerce business Finding ways to provide individuals with growth opportunities and job fulfillment to encourage employee retention in the e-commerce business 4 points Question 25 An Internet host that allows users to send encrypted data so that those outside the connection cannot see the information is a Answer A secure server. An internet host. A computer that has its own Internet Protocol address. A computer that has its own World Wide Web address. MGT 510 Final Exam Part 2 Question 1 Companies with a global HRM orientation Answer Usually provide significant extra pay for expatriate assignments. Evaluate their managers by headquarters’ country standards. Focus primarily on language training as preparation for expatriate assignments. Use similar pay and benefit packages for all international assignments. 4 points Question 2 The main objective of the balance sheet approach to international compensation is Answer To match home and host county purchasing power. To make sure you reward international managers for their hardship. To save costs in inexpensive countries. To provide headquarters’ accountants with consistent information on salaries. 4 points Question 3 Companies with a multi-local strategy are most likely to have a Answer A global HRM orientation. A polycentric HRM orientation. Either a ethnocentric or regiocentric HRM orientation. A geocentric orientation. 4 points Question 4 Home country nationals are Answer Expatriate employees who come from the parent’s home country. Employees who come from a different country where he/she is working. Expatriate employees which come from the parent’s home country. Employees from foreign country who work in the country where the host company is located. 4 points Question 5 International Human Resource Management Answer Is no different from domestic HRM. Is the application of HRM to international settings. Is the orientation to hiring international employees. Is the selection and compensation of expatriates. 4 points Question 6 Evidence on training for international assignments suggests Answer Cross-cultural training reduces expatriate failure rates. Cross-cultural training makes people feel more comfortable but there are no bottom line effects on performance. US firms invest the most in this activity. It only beneficial for long term assignments. 4 points Question 7 Companies with ethnocentric HRM orientations Answer Use similar pay and benefit packages worldwide. Select home country nationals for key positions. Emphasize extensive training in the company culture before allowing a manager to go international. Often use international experience as a technical qualification for high level management. 4 points Question 8 The process by which companies choose people to fill vacant position is Answer Recruitment. Compensation. Selection. Training and development. Question 9 Which of the following represents one possible solution to the “Old Friends” dirty trick? Answer Ignore the ploy and focus on mutual benefits. Keep a psychological distance that reflects the true nature of the relationship. Walk out of negotiations. Reveal when you plan to leave negotiations. 4 points Question 10 The sequential approach to concession-making Answer Is very popular in Asian cultures. Is similar to the holistic approach. Implies that concession making begins only after all participants discuss all issues. Implies that negotiators expect each side to give and take on individual issues in sequence. 4 points Question 11 Deliberate deception, one example among some common ploys in international negotiations, refers to Answer Negotiators presenting flagrant untruths either in the facts they present or in their intentions for the negotiation. Negotiators waiting to the last minute before the international negotiation team plans to go home. Negotiators making an agreement then reveal that it must be approved by senior managers or the government. One negotiator acting agreeable and friendly while his or her partner makes outrageous or unreasonable demands. 4 points Question 12 In competitive negotiation Answer Negotiators seek out mutually satisfactory ground that is beneficial that allows both companies to win. Competitive negotiators view the negotiation as a win-win game. Competitive negotiators use dirty tricks and any plot that leads to their advantage. Competitive negotiators search for possible win situations where the outcome of the negotiation is mutually satisfactory to both sides. 4 points Question 13 Olfactics Answer Is the use of smells as a means of nonverbal communication. Refers to communication through eye contact or gazing. Communication through the use of space. Communication through body contact. 4 points Question 14 If negotiators are using deliberate deception as a dirty tricks, the best way to deal with the deception is Answer Not to make any concessions. To ignore the ploy and focus on the agreement. To not reveal your negotiation plans. To point out directly what you believe is happening. 4 points Question 15 High context languages Answer Are languages in which people state things directly and explicitly. Include most northern European languages including German, English, and the Scandinavian languages. Are languages in which people state things indirectly and implicitly. Are languages where the words provide most of the meaning. 4 points Question 16 __________ negotiators search for possible win-win situations where the outcome of the negotiation is mutually satisfactory to both sides. Answer Problem-solving Concession-making Competitive Hard nosed 4 points Question 17 When applying need theories in a cross-national context, managers should Answer Ignore the differences in needs between nations and apply the models uniformly. Take into consideration the particular needs that people seek to satisfy in different countries. Give the same magnitude of importance to work needs and apply these motivational tools. Understand work centrality and then provide the same rewards to satisfy needs. 4 points Question 18 Social loafing Answer Is the social process of sharing. Occurs when people prefer to work in groups. Means that everyone’s work is easier in groups. Occurs when people put out less effort when working in groups. 4 points Question 19 The need to maximize personal achievement refers to which type of need in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs Answer Physiological needs. Self esteem needs. Self actualization needs. Security needs. 4 points Question 20 In a cross-national context, expectancy theory prescribes that managers Answer Should specify the hierarchy of needs of workers. Identify and eliminate potential sources of inequity at work. Identify valued outcomes and convince workers that their efforts will lead to these outcomes. Punish workers for not achieving organizational goals. 4 points Question 21 Esteem needs refer to Answer Basic survival needs such as food, water and shelter. Safety and avoidance of pain and life-threatening situations. Being loved and having friendship. Focus on respect and feelings of self-worth. 4 points Question 22 A manager gives bonuses to high performing foreign employees hoping that they will continue performing at a high level. This manager is using which motivational principle? Answer Extinction Goal-directed Reinforcement Punishment 4 points Question 23 Need theories of motivation are based on the assumption that Answer Motivation is a function of the individual’s beliefs of what happens if one works hard. Motivation is a result of the outcomes of one’s past behaviors. Motivation is a function of why people work. People can satisfy basic human needs in the work setting. 4 points Question 24 Which types of motivation theories explain motivation arising from satisfaction of needs and values combined with an individual’s beliefs regarding the work environment? Answer Needs theories Work centrality theories Process and reinforcement theories Work functions theories 4 points Question 25 Conclusions from the World Values Survey and the European Values Survey on functions of work reveal that Answer People across the world assign the same degree of importance to work functions. People across the world rate income as the most important work function. People from different nations do not assign the same magnitude of importance to work functions. Workers saw the most important function of work as providing contact with other people.